Different kinds of documents are given to people to sign at different times, and people may get many times concerned that whether they should sign such "contracts" that are given to them.
There are many times questions being risen that whether or not such documents are binding or not as a contract, even if they are not signed. For example, an employer can give a notice to an employee warning that some money may get deducted from his or her paycheck due to some incident at work. But whether or not the employee signs such notice the employer can deduct the money from the employee's paycheck. However, if the employee disagree's with such action, he or she could take the employer to court demanding the unfairness of the deduction. In such scenario the question remains that, if the judge gives the judgement to the employer, Does it mean that since the employee's story has not been accepted, the employer ultimately is the one who is the winner, due to the fact that employer is the owner or the payer who is compensating the employee monetarily?
In such world that we live in, apparently, the owner or the employer is the one who may have the upper hand with the story of the incident(s) that may happen at work, and employees may have a hard time to go after to prove the truth at work!
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